On the offset, let me state that I couldn't care a hoot whether it was a goal as I support neither clubs.
In my humble opinion, it was a cop-out by the ref in defending his fellow countryman with his AFTER-THE-FACT statement.
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"If my assistant referee had not signalled a goal, I would have given a penalty and sent off goalkeeper Petr Cech."If we had to look at real time, the ref didn't look like he was applying the advantage rule because frankly, Liverpool had lost advantage & possession when Cech felled Baros with the ball running loose & Terry being the nearest player & favourite to clear the ball. It was only because of Garcia's quick thinking that he went to challenge Terry, & in the ensuing clash, the ball deflected upwards & bounced slowly towards goal. We then saw Gallas rush towards the goal-line to clear the ball from under the bar
To state now that he would have given a penalty & sent Cech off if 'the advantage' had not favoured Liverpool is a big laugh when there were so many intervening events between the 'foul' & the goal-line clearance!
Also, how many times have we seen refs not give penalties for similiar incidents or worst( remember Campbell's grabbing of Ruud's shirt a couple of seasons back? No penalty even when Ruud blasted the ball over the bar upon shaking himself off ) ?
The ref made matters worse by going on to explain "The crescendo of noise from the Anfield crowd cut communications between Michel and Roman Slysco, the linesman who gave the goal. Michel added: "Roman beeped me to signal the foul by Cech, but I didn't know that till later" & rounded his ridiculous defence by adding "I have seen the goal scores of times since on TV and have no reason to change my mind.."
I think we can safely say that TV replays have either shown it was inconclusive & therefore the ref was obliged not to allow the goal, or as ITV has shown ( which he must have refused to watch ) that it definitely didn't cross the line.
I'm not faulting Pool in this issue but the ref should have just kept his mouth shut as he looks like the idiot he is by going against convention in his analysis of the advantage rule & what constitutes a goal - or was he misquoted in translation?
