15
$\begingroup$

I understand that $dy/dx$ represents how $y$ changes as $x$ changes. But what does $dx$ mean in isolation? I have been told it means an infinitely small change in $x$ without $dx$ being zero. I would like a more rigorous definition.

Mutantoe's user avatar
Mutantoe
7147 silver badges16 bronze badges
askedDec 25, 2017 at 0:20
chessprogrammer's user avatar
$\endgroup$
10
  • 1
    $\begingroup$This is really a difficult question - in higher level settings it may be considered the dual basis to the vector field $\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$. But really, you can just think of it as an "infinitesimal" length in many situations and perform some formal computations with it.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 0:26
  • $\begingroup$Can you give an example of what you mean? Strictly speaking "dx"never appears "in isolation". You may have something like "dy= f(x) dx" but that is just a different way of writing "dy/dx= f(x)".$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 0:28
  • 8
    $\begingroup$The meaning of $\mathrm dx$ in isolation (which can happen, contrary to @user247327's comment) depends highly on the context.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 0:35
  • 3
    $\begingroup$Here is a relevant discussion with lots of information.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 0:41
  • 2
    $\begingroup$If you’d like to do more research, these objects $d[\text{something}]$ are calleddifferentials.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 5:51

2 Answers2

15
$\begingroup$

In the perview of so-called "standard analysis", $dx$ is just a notation. $dy/dx$ is just a notation for the derivative of a function $y = y(x)$ and $\int f(x) \, dx$ for an anti-derivative of $f$. It can often be intuitively useful to think of $dx$ as an "infinitesimal change in $x$" but this is just an informal intuition. (Which most often leads to the correct answer, but can lead you to trouble: see e.g.this andthis and the links therein.)

There is a field of so-callednonstandard analysis which seeks to make the concept of an infinitesimal length mathematically precise and then proceeds to use this to rigorously define calculus. To do non-standard analysis rigorously is very non-trivial however. (It was only developed in the 60s.)

There is a formal definition of differentials like $dx$ in the theory of differential forms. The theory of differential forms is in some way the "correct" way of doing multivariable calculus. It's hard to give an elementary characterization of what $df$ is in this approach without some background, but thefollowing summary should be a good introduction to the subject.

answeredDec 25, 2017 at 0:43
eepperly16's user avatar
$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$To be clear, you see the statement $dz = \frac{\partial z}{\partial x} dx + \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} dy$ in multivariable calculus books... you don't need to have heard of differential forms to have seen $dx$ in isolation in school.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 1:51
  • $\begingroup$@Mehrdad Nor was I trying to say that that you need to have heard of differential forms to have seen $dx$ in isolation. I indeed saw expressions such as this in my multivariable class. What I was trying to convey is that differential forms is a context in which differentials $dx,dy,dz$ are given rigorous definitions consistent with expressions like $dz = \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial z}{\partial y}dy$ from multivariable calculus$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 7:39
  • $\begingroup$Nonstandard analysis doesn't offer anything new regarding differentials; e.g. the definition in Keisler's book is basically just thestandard notion of differential.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 26, 2017 at 0:31
13
$\begingroup$

You can think of an equation of the form

$$ df(x) = f'(x) dx $$

as saying that no matter what you put in the box:

$$ \frac{df(x)}{d \square} = f'(x) \frac{dx}{d \square} $$

you get a true equation.

The technical term for this is $df$ is a "smooth section of the cotangent bundle." Let's break that down:

First thetangent bundle of $\mathbf{R}$ assigns to every point in $\mathbf{R}$ a set of directions emanating out of that point. Since $\mathbf{R}$ is one-dimensional, these vectors have a single dimension (their length with a sign of $\pm 1$). To each point $p \in \mathbf{R}$ we havetangent vectors which take the form

$$ (p, v) $$

where $v$ is a real number (treated as a vector). For example $(2, -1/2)$ is the tangent vector which starts at the point $2$ and points with length $1/2$ in the negative direction.

Cotangent bundle means that $df = df$ is an operation we apply to tangent vectors. Specifically, to each tangent vector $(p, v)$ the operation is

$$ (df)(p,v) = v\left.\frac{df}{dx}\right|_p. $$

This is the derivative of $f$ with respect to $x$ at the point $p$ multiplied by $v$. This is why a common notation for the tangent vector $(p,v)$ is

$$ v\left.\frac{d}{dx} \right|_p. $$

This starts to make more sense when you have more than one variable. For example suppose you have two variables $x$ and $y$. Then each tangent vector looks like $$u \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \right|_p + v \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial y} \right|_p$$ which is the vector pointing with length $u$ in the $x$ direction and $v$ in the $y$ direction. This is how we make the "filling in the box" analogy rigorous. We are saying that we can fill in the box with $x$ or $y$ and obtain a true equation: $$ \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial \square} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} \frac{\partial x}{\partial \square} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \frac{\partial y}{\partial \square} $$

The wordssmooth section mean that we are considering what happens if we change $p$. For example we have

$$ (dx^2)(p,v) = 2pv $$

and this makes sense for more than one value of $p$. In fact, it makes sense for all $p$. Moreover, the function $2pv$ is a smooth function of $p$. This is what the word "smooth" refers to.

It is important to point out that $(df)(p,v)$ depends only on what $f$ is doing "near" $p$. That is to say, the derivative of $f$ at $p$ does not change if we change $f$ far away from $p$ but keep it the same at $p$. This is what gives $df$ its "infinitesimal" nature: the meaning of "near" can be arbitrarily small. We can determine the value of $(df)(p,v)$ knowing only the value of $f$ on the interval $p - 1/10 < x < p + 1/10$ or on the interval $p - 1/1000 < x < p + 1/1000$ or even smaller intervals.

answeredDec 25, 2017 at 1:12
Sera Gunn's user avatar
$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$Superb answer. I wished you were my calc teacher.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 1:49
  • $\begingroup$Looks like a bundle of joy to me :-)$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 1:52
  • $\begingroup$The view of $df$ as a derivative with respect to an unnamed variable is a view that I also have come to use to get something mathematically quite rigorous. But most often I actually think of $df$ as an infinitesimal behaving as a derivative.$\endgroup$CommentedDec 25, 2017 at 7:57

You mustlog in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.